Right. Okay. Now moving on to appropriation. So following Gomez, any assumption of any rights of the owner with or without consent will amount to an appropriation. Any act involving the property of another will be appropriation. So receipt of a gift is an appropriation. It must have an appropriation cause a person who receives a gift is assuming right to the owner who is consenting to it, but consent is irrelevant to appropriation. Does everyone understand that? Is that okay? So then if we look at dishonest receipt of a gift is theft. This is because the person who receives acts satisfied with acts of thefts. That has the intention to permanently deprive. Also, the only factor remains is dishonesty. And then of course, this issue is addressed in Hanks.